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Friday, 10 November 2017

Maharastra Metro Rail Corporation Recruitment 2017

Maharastra Metro Rail Corporation
20 CPM,DM,AM Posts Last Date To Apply 17.11.2017
Maharastra Metro Rail Corporation Has Invited Applications For 20 CPM, DM,And Assistant Managers Posts. All Eligible And Interested Candidates Can Apply offline and download application form from official website www.mmrcl.com on or before 17.11.2017.For More Details Like Educational Qualifications, Admit Card, Previous Year Papers,Age Limit, Selection Process, Results, Interview Questions ,Syllabus Visit : http://examexperts.blogspot.in/
Name Of The Recruiter : Maharastra Metro Rail Corporation

Total No of Posts : 20 Posts

Name Of The Posts : CPM, DM, Assistant Managers

Name & No Of Posts :
  1. CPM (Signal) – E7  :  01 Posts
  2. CPM (Rolling Stock) – E7  :  01 Posts
  3. CPM (Traction) – E7 :   01 Posts
  4. CPM (E & M) – E7  :  01 Posts
  5. CPM (Telecom) – E7  :  01 Posts
  6. DGM (Signal) – E3  :  01 Posts
  7. DGM (Rolling Stock) – E3  :  01 Posts
  8. DGM (Traction) – E3 :   01 Posts
  9. DGM (E & M) – E3 :   01 Posts
  10. DGM (Telecom) – E3  :  01 Posts
  11. Assistant Manager (Signal) -E1 :   02 Posts
  12. Assistant Manager (Rolling Stock)-E1  :  02 Posts
  13. Assistant Manager (Traction) -El  :  02 Posts
  14. Assistant Manager (E & M)-E1 :   02 Posts
  15. Assistant Manager (Telecom)-E1  :  02 Posts
Educational Qualification : Posts Wise Educational Qualifications as follows :
  1. CPM : The candidate should pass BE/ B.Tech in their respective Discipline.
  2. DGM : The candidate should pass BE/ B.Tech in their respective Discipline.
  3. Assistant Manager : The candidate should pass BE/ B.Tech in their respective Discipline. Refer Official Notification For More Details,
Age Limit : Candidates Posts Wise Maximum Age should be as follows :
  1. CPM : 55 years
  2. DGM : 50 years
  3. Assistant Manager : 40 years 
Selection Process : Selection will be based on the Performance in Interview.

Application Fees : Application Fee for the all posts is 400 for General And OBC Category. No fee for SC ST and Women Candidates.

How To Apply : All Eligible Candidates Can Download Application Form from official website
www.mmrcl.com and send the complete form with required documents on or before 17.11.2017 to given Address :
Metro House, 28/2, 
C K Naidu Marg,
Anand Nagar, Civil Lines, 
Nagpur – 440 001.
Important Dates :
  • Last Date For Submission of Application Form : 17.11.2017.

Wednesday, 8 November 2017

Download TANGEDCO Assistant Engineers Syllabus

Tamil Nadu Generation And Distribution Corporation Limited
TNEB TANGEDCO Assistant Engineers Syllabus
Tamil Nadu Generation And Distribution Corporation Limited ( TANGEDCO ) has invited Applications for Assistant Engineers Posts. For More Details Like Educational Qualifications, Admit Card, Previous Year Papers,Age Limit, Selection Process, Results, Interview Questions ,Syllabus For TANGEDCO Assistant Engineers Posts Visit : http://examexperts.blogspot.in

Selection For Tamil Nadu Generation And Distribution Corporation Limited (TANGEDCO) Assistant Engineers Based on the Performance in as Followed ;
  1. Written Examination.
  2. Personal Interview.
Examination Pattern As Follows :
 
Name Of Posts : Assistant Engineers
 
Type Of Exam : Objection Multiple Choice Questions
 
Total No Of Questions : 100 
 
Total Marks : 100
 
Total Duration : 2 Hrs 

Name Of Subjects ( Discipline ):
  1. Engineering Mathematics
  2. Basic Engineering & Sciences
  3. Electrical Engineering / Civil Engineering
Engineering Mathematics :
  1. Numerical Methods.
  2. Functions of Complex Variables and Complex Integration.
  3. Vector Calculus.Transforms.
  4. Applied Probability.
  5. Determinants and Matrices.
  6. Calculus and Differential Equations
Basic Engineering & Sciences :
  1. Applied Mechanics
  2. Physics
  3. Instrumentation
  4. Environmental Pollution
  5. Adsorption
  6. Chromatography
  7. Chemical Kinetics
  8. Spectroscopy
  9. Fuels and Combustion etc
  10. Electrical Engineering
  11. Ohm’s law
  12. Kirchoff’s law
  13. Synchronous machines
  14. Mechanical Engineering
  15. A.C. circuits
  16. D.C. machines
  17. Electrochemistry
  18. Transformers
  19. Boundary Layer
  20. C program
  21. Computers
  22. Civil Engineering
  23. Fluid Statics and Dynamics
  24. Material Science
  25. Pumps and Turbines
  26. Computer Organization
  27. Arrays
  28. Pointers
  29. User defined function
  30. Architecture
  31. Chemistry
Electrical Circuits and Fields :
  1. Digital Electronics
  2. Control systems
  3. Electrical machines
  4. Power Electronics and Drives
  5. Digital Signal Processing
  6. Power Systems
  7. Computer Control of Processes, Networks
  8. Communication Engineering
Civil Engineering :
  1. Structural Engineering
  2. Water Resources Engineering
  3. Environmental Engineering
  4. Transportation Engineering

SSC General Awareness Question-Answers

Staff Selection Commission Previous Year Paper
General Awareness & Current Affairs Questions-Anwers
1. Design of the National Flag was adopted by the constituent Assembly of India in-
  • July, 1948
  • July, 1950
  • July, 1947
  • Aug., 1947
2. Who among the following was the chairman of the Drafting Committee of the Indian constitution ?
  • Rajendra Prasad
  • Tej Bahadur Sapru
  • C. Rajgopalachari
  • B. R. Ambedkar
3. What is the special constitutional position of Jammu and Kashmir ?
  • Indian laws are not applicable
  • It has its own constitution
  • It is not one of the integral part of India
  • k is above Indian constitution
4. The Indian constitution closely follows the constitutional system of -
  • USA
  • U. K.
  • Switzerland
  • Russia
5. In a parliamentary form of government, real powers of the state are vested in the-
  • council of ministers
  • President
  • Government
  • Parliament
6. The Directive Principles of state policy included in the constitution of India have been inspired by constitution of-
  • U. S. A.
  • Ireland
  • Canada
  • Australia
7. What is the minimum permissible age for employment In any factory or mine ?
  • 12 years
  • 14 years
  • 16 years
  • 18 years
9. Who is a highest Law Officer of a state ?
  • Attorney General
  • Advocate General
  • Solicitor General
  • Secretary General
10. Which of the following is also called the "house of elders"?
  • Rajya Sabha
  • Lok Sabha
  • Gram Sabha
  • Vidhan Sabha
11.Members of the Union Public Service Commission function
  • 60 years
  • 58 years
  • 62 years
  • 65 years
12. The first no confidence motion moved in the Lok Sabha After independence was in the year-
  • 1954
  • 1960
  • 1963
  • 1975
13. The Legislative Council in a state can be created or disbanded by the-
  • State Legislative alone
  • Parliament alone
  • Parliament on recommendation of the state legislative
  • President on recommendation of the Governor
l4.The Union Territories get representation in-
  • Lok Sabha
  • Rajya Sabha
  • Both houses of Parliament
  • None of these
1 5 In a case of a deadlock between the two Houses of the parliament, the joint sitting is presided over by the-
  • President
  • Vice-President
  • Speaker of Lok Sabha
  • Member of the Lok Sabha specially selected for the purpose
16. Joint sitting of the two Houses of Parliament are held to-
  • elect the President of India
  • elect the Vice-President
  • adopt a constitution amending Bill
  • consider and pass a bill on which two Houses disagree
17. A money bill passed by the Lok Sabha has to be passed by Rajya Sabha within-
  • 14 days
  • 21 days
  • 1 month
  • 3 months
18.Parliament of India is composed of-
  • Lok Sabha only
  • Rajya Sabha only
  • Lok Sabha and Rajya Sabha
  • Lok Sabha, Rajya Sabha and President
19. When can the speaker exercise his right to vote In the House ?
  • whenever he desires
  • whenever the House desires
  • only in the event of equality of votes
  • whenever his party desires
20. Who presided over the meetings of the Rajya Sabha ?
  • President
  • Vice-President
  • Prime Minister
  • Speaker
21.Parliament or a State Legislature can declare a seat vacant of a member absents himself without permission from the sessions for-
  • 30 days
  • 60 days
  • 90 days
  • 120 days
22. Members of the Rajya Sabha are elected according to
  • cumulative vote system
  • single non-transferable vote system
  • single transferable vote system
  • none of these
23. Which of the following can be abolished but not dissolved ?
  • Rajya Sabha
  • Municipal Bodies
  • State Legislative Council
  • None of these
24. Which of the following appointment is not made by the President of India ?
  • Speaker of Lok Sabha
  • Chief Justice of India
  • Chief of the Air Force
  • Chief of the Army
25. The charge of impeachment against the President of India for his removal can be preferred by-
  • Rajya Sabha
  • Lok Sabha
  • Speaker of Lok Sabha and chairman of Rajya Sabha
  • Both Houses of Parliament
26. Under whose advice the President of India declares emergencey under Article 352 ?
  • council of ministers
  • cabinet
  • Chief ministers of all states
  • Prime Minister
27. The President of India can be removed from his office by the-
  • Prime Minister
  • Lok Sabha
  • Chief Justice of India
  • Parliament
28.Which subject was transferred from state list to concurrent list by the 42 nd amendment of the constitution ?
  • Agriculture
  • Education
  • Irrigation
  • Local self government
29.Who has the constitutional authority to decide tax share of states ?
  • Finance Minister
  • Finance Commission
  • Planning Commission
  • Union Cabinet
30. For the enforcement of Fundamental Rights, the Supren1 Court may issue a/an-
  • decree
  • ordinance
  • notification
  • writ
31.Which High Court has jurisdiction over the state Arunachal Pradesh ?
  • Guwahati
  • Mumbai
  • Kolkata
  • Chandigarh
32. Which of the following writs may be issued to enforce a Fundamental Right ?
  • Habeas corpus
  • Mandamus
  • Prohibition
  • Certiorari
33. Which of the following Articles deals with the Amendment to our constitution ?
  • 356
  • 368
  • 370
  • 372
34. In India, political parties are given recognization by-
  • President
  • Law Commission
  • Speaker of Lok Sabha
  • Election Commission
35.The Election Commission does not conduct the elections to the-
  • Lok Sabha
  • Rajya Sabha
  • Local bodies
  • President's elections
36.Who appoints the Chief Election Commissioner of India ?
  • President
  • Prime Minister
  • Parliament
  • Chief Justice of India
37.Who among the following is authorized to declare elections of the Lok Sabha ?
  • President
  • Prime Minister
  • Union Cabinet
  • Election Commission
38. The Panchayati Raj system was adopted to-
  • make people aware of politics
  • decentralize the power of democracy
  • educate the peasants
  • none of these
39.Which of the following is a source of income of the Gram Panchayats ?
  • Income Tax
  • Sales Tax
  • Professional Tax
  • Levy Duties
40. which of the following states was the Panchayati Raj first introduced ?
  • Rajasthan
  • Gujarat
  • U. P.
  • Bihar
41.In 1992 in which amendment the historic Panchayati Raj bill was adopted by the Parliament ?
  • 70th
  • 72nd
  • 74th
  • 68th
42.Which of the following is not a source of revenue to the village panchayats ?
  • Property Tax
  • House Tax
  • Land Tax
  • Vehicle Tax
43.Which is at the apex of the three-tier system of Panchi Raj ?
  • Gram Sabha
  • Gram Panchayat
  • Zila Parishad
  • Panchayat Samiti
44. Special representation in Panchayati Raj Institutlo given to
  • Women
  • Co-operative societies
  • Bar' A/ard classes
  • All of these
45.Whir.i article of the constitution directs the government to organize Village Panchayats-
  • Art-32
  • Art-40
  • Art-48
  • Art-51
46.Planning Commission is a-
  • Statutory body
  • Executive body
  • Autonomous body
  • None of these
47.Which of the following is not an essential element state-
  • Population
  • Territory
  • Sovereignty
  • Democracy
48.The only President of India who was elected unoppoi is-
  • S. Radhakrishnan
  • Dr. Zakir Hussain
  • Neelam Sanjeeva Reddy
  • Fakhruddin Ali Ahmad
49. Protection of the interests of the minorities is envisaged in which of the folic policies ?
  • 14
  • 19
  • 29
  • 32
50.Territorial waters of India extends up to how many nautical miles ?
  • 8
  • 12
  • 16
  • 22

Download MP Patwari Exam 2017 Syllabus II Patwari Exam Syllabus 2017 II

Madhya Pradesh Patwari Exam Syllabus 2017
Download VYAPAM Patwari Exam Syllabus
Madhyapradesh VYAPAM Invited application for  9235 Posts of Patwari,All Eligible Candidates can View and apply for the posts through online application on or before 11.11.2017.For More Details Like Educational Qualifications, Admit Card, Previous Year Papers,Age Limit, Selection Process, Results, Interview Questions ,Syllabus Visit : http://examexperts.blogspot.in/.

All the candidates who applied for the posts is searching the Syllabus,Paper Patter, Papers, and Others details ,The Official exam pattern is updated at the official website.Here we are provided the all details in simple way.It is an Objective type Written Exam i.e. Test will have Multiple Choice Questions.

Type Of Exam : Objective Type ( Multiple Choice Questions )

Total No Of Questions : 100 Questions

Time Duration : 90 Min
 
Name Of Subjects :    
  1. General Knowledge And Current Affairs.
  2. Computer Awareness
  3. General English.
  4. Mathematics.
  5. General Hindi.
MP Patwari Exam-2017 Syllabus – Mathematics
  1. Number Systems.
  2. Computation of Whole Numbers.
  3. Fractions.
  4. Percentages.
  5. Decimals.
  6. Fundamental Arithmetical Operations.
  7. Ratio and Proportion.
  8. Profit and Loss.
  9. Averages.
  10. Filed Book.
  11. Mensuration.
  12. Time and Distance.
  13. Geometry.
  14. Use of Table and Graphs.
  15. Interest.
  16. Discount.
  17. Ratio and Time.
  18. Quadrilaterals.
  19. Circles.
  20. Logical Reasoning.
  21. Time and Work etc.
MP Patwari Exam-2017 Syllabus – General Knowledge
  1. History.
  2. Heritage.
  3. Art & Culture.
  4. Indian Constitution.
  5. Literature.
  6. Governance System.
  7. Tourism.
  8. General Science.
  9. Polity.
  10. Chemistry.
  11. Geography.
  12. Physics.
  13. Biology etc.
 MP Patwari Exam-2017 Syllabus - Computer Awareness
  1. Computer Basics.
  2. Multimedia.
  3. Input & Output Devices.
  4. Word Processing.
  5. Computer Organization.
  6. Presentation Package.
  7. Operating System.
  8. Spread Sheet Package.
  9. Information Technology & Society etc.
MP Patwari Exam-2017 Syllabus - General Hindi
  1. Sandhi.
  2. Paryayvachi Shabd.
  3. Samas.
  4. Tenses.
  5. Upasargh.
  6. Error Detection.
  7. Synonyms.
  8. Jumbling of Sentences.
  9. Sentences Transformation.
  10. Muhavare.
  11. Verb.
  12. Speech.
  13. Phrases.
  14. Translation of English Sentences into Hindi etc.
MP Patwari Exam-2017 Syllabus - General English
  1. Vocabulary.
  2. Grammar.
  3. Fill in the blanks.
  4. Spot the error.
  5. Sentence structure.
  6. Spellings.
  7. Antonyms.
  8. Synonyms/ Homonyms.
  9. Detecting Mis-spelt words.
  10. Idioms and phrases.
  11. Improvement.
  12. One word substitutions.
  13. Passage.
  14. Verbs.
  15. Adjectives.
  16. Verbal Comprehension passage.
  17. Clauses.

IBPS Quantitative Aptitude Previous Year Questions

IBPS Clerk Examination
Quantitative Aptitude Solved Questions
1. A clock shows the time as 6 a.m. If the minute hand gains 2 minutes every hour, how many minutes will the clock gain by 9 p.m.?
  • 30 minutes
  • 25 minutes
  • 28 minutes
  • 34 minutes
2. Find the right number, from the given options, at the place marked by the question mark: 2, 4, 8, 32, 256, ?
  • 4096
  • 8192
  • 512
  • 1024
3. Find the number missing at question mark:
10, 11, 23, 39, 64, ?, 149
  • 100
  • 103
  • 78
  • 128
4. A super fast bus of KSRTC starting from 'Trivandrum' and reaches 'Attingal' in 45 minutes with an average speed of 40 km/hr. If the speed is increased by 10 km/hr how much time it will take to cover the same distance?
  • 34 minutes
  • 36 minutes
  • 38 minutes
  • 40 minutes
5. The difference between 6 times and 8 times of a figure is 14. What is the figure?
  • 12
  • 9
  • 7
  • 6
6. If 92y = 36 what is 9y?
  • 4
  • 6
  • 9
  • 18
7. One fourth percent of 180 is:
  • 4.5
  • 0.45
  • 0.045
  • 45
8. A candidate appearing for an examination has to secure 40% marks to pass paper I. But he secured only 40 marks and failed by 20 marks. What is the maximum mark for paper I?
  • 100
  • 200
  • 180
  • 150
9. Find the missing number 32, 52, 74, 112, 135
  • 16
  • 15
  • 17
  • 14
10. If 250 is increased to 300, what is the percentage increase?
  • 16.67
  • 20
  • 23
  • 17
11. The ratio of 9 seconds to 10 hours is .
  • 1:40
  • 1:4000
  • 9:10
  • 1:400
12. A person lost 10% when he sold goods at Rs.153. For how much should he sell them to gain 20%?
  • 204
  • 250
  • 240
  • 210
13. What will be xy if 7862xy is to be divisible by 125?
  • 25
  • 00
  • 75
  • 50
14. A train of 100 meters long is running at the speed of 36 km per hour. In what time it passes a bridge of 80 meters long?
  • 30 seconds
  • 36 seconds
  • 20 seconds
  • 18 seconds
15. If two-third of a bucket is filled in one minute then the time taken to fill the bucket completely will be .
  • 90 seconds
  • 70 seconds
  • 60 seconds
  • 100 seconds
16. If a quarter kilogram costs Rs. 60 then how much will cost for 150 grams?
  • Rs. 30
  • Rs. 24
  • Rs. 36
  • Rs. 40
17. If 3 men or 6 boys can do a piece of work in 20 days then how many days with 6 men and 8 boys take to do the same work?
  • 5
  • 8
  • 10
  • 6
18. Find the sum of first 100 natural numbers
  • 5050
  • 5005
  • 9900
  • 9050
19. Two poles of height 6 meters and 11 meters stand on a plane ground. If the distance between their feet is 12 meters then find the difference in the distance between their tops:
  • 12m
  • 5m
  • 13m
  • 11m
20. How many balls of radius 4 cm can be made from a solid sphere of lead of radius 8 cm?
  • 4
  • 8
  • 16
  • 2
21. The solution to x2 +6x+9 = 0 is ..
  • x1 = + 3, x2 = -3
  • x1 = 3, x2 = 3
  • x1 = -3, x2 = -3
  • No solution
22. What is the chance of getting a 2 or 4 in rolling a die?
  • 2/3
  • 1/6
  • 1/3
  • d) 1/2
23. At what rate of simple interest per annum an amount will be doubled in 10 years?
  • 10%
  • 7.5%
  • 16%
  • 15%
24. Five times an unknown number is 5 less than 50. The unknown number
  • 10
  • 11
  • 9
  • 5
25. The acute angle between the hour hand and minute hand of a clock at 4 PM
  • 900
  • 1200
  • 1500
  • 2400
26. Water is filled in a cylindrical vessel in such a way that its volume doubles after every five minutes. If it takes 30 minutes for the vessel to be full, then the vessel will be one fourth full in
  • 20 minute
  • 25 minutes
  • 7 minutes 30 seconds
  • 10 minutes
27. If 10 cats can kill 10 rats in 10 minutes how long will it take 100 cats to kill 100 rats
  • 1 minutes
  • 10 minute
  • 100 minutes
  • 10000 minutes
28. If 75 % of a number is added to 75, the result is the number itself, then the number is:
  • 250
  • 750
  • 400
  • 300
29. A school has enough food for 400 children for 12 days. How long will the food last if 80 more children join them?
  • 6 days
  • 7 days
  • 10 days
  • 8 days
30. The sum of two consecutive numbers is 55, which is the largest number?
  • 25
  • 28
  • 26
  • 27
31. When a shop keeper sold 2/3 of an item, he got the cost price of the whole lot. What is the percentage of his profit?
  • 33 1/8 %
  • 66 2/3 %
  • 25 %
  • 50 %
32. The perimeter of a rectangular field is 480 meters and the ratio between the length and breadth is 5:3. The area of the field is:
  • 7,200m2
  • 15,000m2
  • 54,000m2
  • 13,500m2
33. If you add 100 to a certain number, the result will be more than, if you multiply that number by 1000 what is that number?
  • 1.5
  • 1.0
  • 2.5
  • 2.0
34. A student has to secure 40 % marks to pass. He gets 150 marks and fails by 30 marks. What is the maximum marks?
  • 400
  • 500
  • 475
  • 450
35. The circumcentre of an obtuse triangle will always be in the
  • Interior of the triangle
  • Midpoint of the diameter
  • Exterior of the triangle
  • Midpoint of the side of the triangle
36. What is the degree measure of a semicircle?
  • 360
  • 90
  • 270
  • 180
37. Which among the following is the point of intersection of the medians of a triangle?
  • Circumcentre
  • Centroid
  • Orthocenter
  • Incentre
38. The height of a cone and its base diameter are equal. If the base radius is 'r' what is its slant height?
  • 3r
  • 4r
  • 5r
  • ?3r
39. The radii of two spheres are in the ratio 2:3. What is the ratio of their surface areas?
  • 4:9
  • 2:3
  • 8:27
  • 4:6
40. What is the common ratio of the progression 3?2, 6, 6?2 ?
  • 3
  • 2
  • ?2
  • ?3
41. In class of 100 students 50 students passed in Mathematics and 70 passed in English, 5 students failed in both Mathematics and English. How many students passed in both the subjects?
  • 25
  • 30
  • 50
  • 45
42. Speed of a boat in still water is 9 km/hr. It goes 12 km down stream and comes back to the starting point in three hours.What is the speed of water in the stream?
  • 3 km/hr
  • 4 km/hr
  • 4.5 km/hr
  • 5 km/hr
43. A student was asked to add 16 and subtract 10 from a number.He by mistake added 10 and subtracted 16. If his answer is 14 what is the correct answer?
  • 20
  • 26
  • 30
  • 32
44. Find the area of a right angled triangle whose hypotenuse is 10 cm and base 8 cm.
  • 48 sq.cm
  • 34 sq.cm
  • 24 sq.cm
  • 42 sq.cm
45. Find the next term of the series: 3, 6, 9, 18, 27, 54,
  • 81
  • 69
  • 63
  • 57
46. A number consists of 20 plus 20% of its value. The number is:
  • 20
  • 22
  • 25
  • 30
47. 20% of 5 + 5% of 20 =
  • 5
  • 2
  • 6
  • 21
48. The angle between the minute hand and the hour hand of a clock, when the time is 8.30
  • 800
  • 600
  • 1050
  • 750
49. Rs. 1581 is divided among A, B and C in the ratio 10 : 15 : 6. What is the share of B?
  • 306
  • 765
  • 700
  • 510
50. The sum of four consecutive counting numbers is 154. Find the smallest number:
  • 36
  • 37
  • 38
  • 31